I had always thought that the atonement of Jesus offered salvation to the souls living during the time period spanning from Adam to the last person to be born. Yet, 2 Nephi 9:7 seems to suggest something else.
Wherefore, it must needs be an infinite atonement?¢‚Ç¨‚Äùsave it should be an infinite atonement this corruption could not put on incorruption. Wherefore, the first judgment which came upon man must needs have remained to an endless duration. And if so, this flesh must have laid down to rot and to crumble to its mother earth, to rise no more.
Here, Jacob is saying that the Saviour’s atonement is infinite and endless. Is this simply figurative, meaning that the atonement covers a very long period of time? Is it literal, suggesting that there is no beginning or end and that it extends to before Adam and past the last person to be born on this earth?