And he cometh into the world that he may save all men if they will hearken unto his voice; for behold, he suffereth the pains of all men, yea, the pains of every living creature, both men, women, and children, who belong to the family of Adam. (2 Ne 9:21)
I find this scripture interesting; particularly given the popular belief among some Christians (including some Latter-day Saints) that when we sin, we add to the pain and suffering of the Christ.
Jacob is saying that Jesus suffered the pains of all who belong to the family of Adam. Considering not everyone will repent of the sins s/he commits, one must assume that Jacob also means Jesus suffered for all sins.
In light of the recent post on the omniscience of God, and the ability for us to choose between righteousness and sin, I am left pondering how the suffering panned out. How could the Saviour suffer for our sins when they had yet to be committed and we still had the choice to avoid the sins for which He potentially suffered? Did He suffer for every possible sin? If God knows every possible decision we can make and every possible thread of our futures based on those decisions?¢‚Ç¨‚Äùas I asked in my previous post?¢‚Ç¨‚Äùperhaps then Jesus also could also suffer for every possible sin.